Romans 9:30

“What shall we say then? etc..] To God's calling of a large number of the Gentiles, and only a very few of the Jews, according to his eternal purposes and decrees; what can be objected to it? is he chargeable with any unrighteousness? must it not be referred to his sovereign will and pleasure? is it not an instance of his grace and goodness, that he calls and saves some, when they were all so wicked, that he might in justice have destroyed every individual of them? or what is further to be said, concerning both Jews and Gentiles? or what can be objected to what may be further observed concerning them? as that the Gentiles which followed not after righteousness; the very same persons among…”

“What shall we say then?--"What now is the result of the whole?" The result is this--very different from what one would have expected. That the Gentiles, which followed not after righteousness, have attained--"attained" to righteousness, even the righteousness of faith--As we have seen that "the righteousness of faith" is the righteousness which justifies (see on Rom 3:22, &c.), this verse must mean that "the Gentiles, who while strangers to Christ were quite indifferent about acceptance with God, having embraced the Gospel as soon as it was preached to them, experienced the blessedness of a justified state."”

“What shall we say then? - What conclusion shall we draw from the previous train of remarks? To what results have we come by the passages adduced from the Old Testament? This question is asked preparatory to his summing up the argument; and he had so stated the argument that the conclusion which he was about to draw was inevitable. The Gentiles - That many of the Gentiles; or that the way was open for them, and many of them “had actually” embraced the righteousness of faith. This Epistle was written as late as the year 57 (see Introduction), and at that time multitudes of pagans had embraced the Christian religion. Which followed not after righteousness - The apostle does not mean that none…”

“What shall we say then - What is to be concluded from all that has been said but this, That the gentiles, who followed not after righteousness - Who a while ago had no knowledge of, no care or thought about, it. Have attained to righteousness - Or justification. Even the righteousness which is by faith. This is the first conclusion we may draw from the preceding observations. The second is, that Israel - The Jews Although following after the law of righteousness - That law which, duly used, would have led them to faith, and thereby to righteousness. Have not attained to the law of righteousness - To that righteousness or justification which is one great end of the law Romans 9:32”

“shall: Rom 9:14, Rom 3:5 the Gentiles: Rom 1:18-32, Rom 4:11, Rom 10:20; Isa 65:1, Isa 65:2; Co1 6:9-11; Eph 2:12, Eph 4:17-19; Pe1 4:3 followed: Rom 9:31; Pro 15:9, Pro 21:21; Isa 51:1; Ti1 6:11 even the righteousness: Rom 1:17, Rom 3:22, Rom 4:9, Rom 4:11, Rom 4:13, Rom 4:22, Rom 5:1, Rom 10:10; Gal 3:8, Gal 5:5; Phi 3:9; Heb 11:7 Romans 9:31”